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<blockquote data-quote="AnuradhaRa" data-source="post: 18486172" data-attributes="member: 325076"><p><span style="font-size: 15px">For a RL circuit, I know as a fact at t=0, there is a back emf that is almost equivalent to the original emf source. In order for the back emf to exist, there needs to be a magnetic field in the inductor. In order for there to be a magnetic field in the inductor, there needs to be a current flowing through the inductor. In fact, the current would need to be close to the maximum current to induce such a large back emf noticeable at t=0. Yet, at t=0, I also know that the current in an RL circuit is 0. And so on. <span style="color: red">Is this a paradox?</span> What did I miss here?</span></p><p></p><p><span style="font-size: 15px"><span style="color: Red">what accounts for the physical existence of a back emf? Without a current in the inductor, I don't see how there can be back emf.</span></span></p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="AnuradhaRa, post: 18486172, member: 325076"] [SIZE="4"]For a RL circuit, I know as a fact at t=0, there is a back emf that is almost equivalent to the original emf source. In order for the back emf to exist, there needs to be a magnetic field in the inductor. In order for there to be a magnetic field in the inductor, there needs to be a current flowing through the inductor. In fact, the current would need to be close to the maximum current to induce such a large back emf noticeable at t=0. Yet, at t=0, I also know that the current in an RL circuit is 0. And so on. [COLOR="red"]Is this a paradox?[/COLOR] What did I miss here?[/SIZE] [SIZE="4"][COLOR="Red"]what accounts for the physical existence of a back emf? Without a current in the inductor, I don't see how there can be back emf.[/COLOR][/SIZE] [/QUOTE]
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