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Free Will and Omnimax GOD and the test
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<blockquote data-quote="dilankandy" data-source="post: 12366866" data-attributes="member: 6909"><p><span style="font-size: 15px"></span></p><p><span style="font-size: 15px">This is one of many definitions of free will. I'm not familiar with this one. But according to materialistic view, the free will is defined as " In absence of OPPOSITION " - "<em>Leviathan</em>". This definition clearly violates previous one. I'm not a materialist but this is a very compelling argument. </span></p><p><span style="font-size: 15px"></span></p><p><span style="font-size: 15px">If anyone has read Immanuel Kant, he tried solve this question of free will by defining that GOD and FREE WILL are things that exist outside of time-space or in other words realm of appearance or the realm of mathematics and science. Since every action is pre-governed by a cause (verify this your self!), every thing that happens, happen according to the law of natural causality. Therefore it is impossible for anything in this realm of appearance to have a free will.</span></p><p><span style="font-size: 15px"></span></p><p><span style="font-size: 15px">I don't agree with Kant's idea completely because he (also Descartes) presupposed the notion of a GOD to perfect their explanation. (I'm a person who doesn't favor presuppositions in an experiment. because it can lead a person to a faulty conclusion or a multidimensional contradictions.)</span></p><p><span style="font-size: 15px"></span></p><p><span style="font-size: 15px">And also remember that all theologists and philosophers followed the philosophical method instead of scientific method, which by definition is not open for perfection. Scientific method is to conclude according to facts or experimental data AND then come up with a hypothesis. But in philosophical way you come up with a hypothesis and then try to find facts that support it, which is problematic in its nature.</span></p><p><span style="font-size: 15px"></span></p><p><span style="font-size: 15px">Anyway Kant's resolution to this was that actions in the realm of appearance are determined. But in the realm of Independent reality, beings are self determined there fore we are the law givers of our self hence the existence of free will. This sound s like a lot of bullshit to me anyways.</span></p><p><span style="font-size: 15px"><span style="color: DarkGreen"></span></span></p><p><span style="font-size: 15px"><span style="color: DarkGreen">Here I think the question has to be rephrased that " Upon creation, if GOD establishes the motion of every single object and being, then does free will exist in this realm? " </span></span></p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="dilankandy, post: 12366866, member: 6909"] [SIZE="4"] This is one of many definitions of free will. I'm not familiar with this one. But according to materialistic view, the free will is defined as " In absence of OPPOSITION " - "[I]Leviathan[/I]". This definition clearly violates previous one. I'm not a materialist but this is a very compelling argument. If anyone has read Immanuel Kant, he tried solve this question of free will by defining that GOD and FREE WILL are things that exist outside of time-space or in other words realm of appearance or the realm of mathematics and science. Since every action is pre-governed by a cause (verify this your self!), every thing that happens, happen according to the law of natural causality. Therefore it is impossible for anything in this realm of appearance to have a free will. I don't agree with Kant's idea completely because he (also Descartes) presupposed the notion of a GOD to perfect their explanation. (I'm a person who doesn't favor presuppositions in an experiment. because it can lead a person to a faulty conclusion or a multidimensional contradictions.) And also remember that all theologists and philosophers followed the philosophical method instead of scientific method, which by definition is not open for perfection. Scientific method is to conclude according to facts or experimental data AND then come up with a hypothesis. But in philosophical way you come up with a hypothesis and then try to find facts that support it, which is problematic in its nature. Anyway Kant's resolution to this was that actions in the realm of appearance are determined. But in the realm of Independent reality, beings are self determined there fore we are the law givers of our self hence the existence of free will. This sound s like a lot of bullshit to me anyways. [COLOR="DarkGreen"] Here I think the question has to be rephrased that " Upon creation, if GOD establishes the motion of every single object and being, then does free will exist in this realm? " [/COLOR][/SIZE][COLOR="DarkGreen"][/COLOR] [/QUOTE]
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