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Message: <blockquote data-quote="sirajstc" data-source="post: 10608692" data-attributes="member: 91140">1.2.3.15 Jesus is God's servant   All of mankind are the servants of God. If a man were to own another man then that man would be his servant. Obviously this servant would be held in a lower regard than this man's own children (or himself). We do not usually find people telling their sons (or themselves): "come here my servant," or "Go over there my servant." Let us compare this with what God has to say about Jesus (pbuh):  <ol> <li data-xf-list-type="ol">Matthew 12:18: "Behold my servant, whom I have chosen."     </li> <li data-xf-list-type="ol">Acts 3:13(RSV): "The God of Abraham, and of Isaac,....     hath glorified his servant Jesus." </li> <li data-xf-list-type="ol">Acts 4:27(RSV): "For of a truth against thy holy servant     Jesus, whom thou hast anointed...." </li> </ol>  The Actual Greek word used is "pias" or "paida" which mean; "servant, child, son, manservant." Some translations of the Bible, such as the popular King James Version, have translated this word as "Son" when it is attributed to Jesus (pbuh) and "servant" for most everyone else, while more recent translations of the Bible such as the Revised Standard Version (RSV) now honestly translate it as "servant." As we shall see in later chapters, the RSV was compiled by thirty two Biblical scholars of the highest eminence, backed by 50 cooperating Christian denominations from the "most" ancient Biblical manuscripts available to them today. Chances are that no matter what your church or denomination you are able to name, that church took part in the correction of the King James Version of the Bible which resulted in the RSV. The exact same word "pias" is attributed to Jacob(Israel) in Luke 1:54 and translated as "servant":   "He hath helped his servant Israel, in remembrance of his mercy;."  It is also applied to King David in Luke 1:69, and once again, it is translated as "servant":   "....the house of his servant David;" (also see Acts 4:25).  However, when it is applied to Jesus (e.g. Acts 3:13, Acts 4:27), NOW it is translated as "Son." (notice that it is not only translated as "son" but as "Son".) Why the double standard? Why the dishonest translation techniques?  "And verily, among them is a party who twist their tongues with the Scripture that you might think that it is from the Scripture but it is not from the Scripture; and they say, 'It is from Allah' but it is not from Allah; and they speak a lie against Allah while [well] they know it!"   The noble Qur'an, A'al-Umran(3):78  "The Messiah will never scorn to be a servant of Allah, nor will the favored angels. Whosoever scorns His service and is proud, all such will He assemble unto Him; Then as for those who believed and did good works, unto them will he pay their wages in full and shall increase them from His bounty. [But] as for those who were scornful and proud, He shall punish hem with a painful torment, nor will they find for themselves other than Allah any ally or champion"   The noble Qur'an, Al-Nissa(4):172-174</blockquote>

Verification: Asuwa dahayen wadi kalama keeyada?

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