Yes there is a definition, and I have quoted it in this very thread. Please refer back. Countries where the age of consent is 12, are few and far in between. A Majority of countries have it at 15 years or more. In the future you can expect those countries that have it at 12 to raise the bar as well.
When you talk of the age of consent, know the reason behind it. The age of consent has been legalized so as to protect minors/chilren from being taken sexual advantage of.
No matter what you say, Mohammed was a little over five times as old as Aisha; an experienced adult. He took a liking to her and made the move. No where is it documented that Aisha took a personal interest in Mohammed prior to the marriage. Her consent wasn't asked, and her parents obliged to his request and gave her away. If this isn't taking sexual advantage of a minor I don't know what is. This would be a punishable crime, where both Mohammed and her parents would be held accountable had it happened today in any non-islamic country. The laws of today contradict Mohammed's laws.
That is simply heresay on your part. What evidence do you have to prove that Aisha was mentally mature? My evidence against this, is the fact that she was still playing with dolls at the time. I think that tells us A LOT about her overall maturity at the time of marriage.
Praise?! What do you call Aisha's incessant ramblings about Mohammed's seimen stained clothes, tongue sucking, spit swapping and other such personal details ?
Do you really believe that a wife who loves her husband would go on to divulge such intimate details to the public, after his death?
I see that you have conveniently changed the definition of peadophilia to include, "children who have not reached puberty". I can't find a single definition that has that bit. Why change? Scared that Mohammed would otherwise nicely fit within the accepted definition?
The the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child defines ‘children’ as persons up to the age of 18. (source:
http://www.un.org/esa/socdev/unyin/qanda.htm)
I am not confusing the two.
Can you tell me why Mohammed was attracted to a child of 6 years in the first place?
It surely cannot be her intellect, since I don't recall any documented evidence of Mohammed mentioning such a thing or holding conversations with her in order to be impressed in that manner. The only reason I see is a pure sexual attraction, and I find that very disturbing.
Alright. Then what of her quote regarding him sucking her tongue? LOL, was that to tell Muslim men that they are allowed to suck their wives tongues too?
If that were the case, it would be a very weak argument. I think the messenger of God should have more important things to teach mankind than sucking their partners' tongues.
I would also like to know why is that only Aisha spoke of their intimate times. If every aspect of his life was recorded as you say, how come his other wives didn't talk of what he was up to when he spent the night with them?
You can stand by your beliefs, but the facts tell us that what Mohammed did then is "illegal" by today's standards. Your beliefs are not going to change that.
Other muslim members have said that too with regard to certain hadith quotes, but have failed to provide evidence that suggest so when requested. Do you have any evidence disproving those quotes?
