SON ALSO MEANS DESCENDANT
DID JESUS (PBUH) HAVE TWO FATHERS?
What do you call a person who has two fathers? No he has only one father The explanation of the phrase that Jesus (pbuh) was the son of David (pbuh), is that Jesus (pbuh) was a descendant of David (pbuh). ‘Son’, here means a descendant.
yeah there it means the real world descendant
I am also saying samething, son of god doesn’t actually refer to actual biological "Son" at all.it refers to many in Bible, even it may refer to servant of God. In the KJV, we find that Jesus is God's Son. In the NKJV, we find that He is God's servant. These are clearly not the same! The Greek word found in the text here is "pais". It can be used in Greek for either "son" or "servant." So which one is correct here? See the link
http://www.chick.com/information/bibleversions/articles/saviororservant.asp
bt Remember Jesus said : I and the father are one, can you say like that? CAn David or Mohumed say like that?
Why u r talking out of context?? So for the context, ‘I and my father are one’ - you have to go to the Gospel of John, Ch. No.10, Verse No. 23, and I am quoting from my memory, that ‘Jesus walked into the temple, in Solomon’s porch’. Verse No. 24 says, and the Jews came around him and asked him. ‘How long does thou make us doubt? - If thou art the Christ, tell us plainly’. Verse No.25 says, ‘I told you, but you believe me not - the works that I do in my father’s name, - they bear witness of me. Verse No.26 says that, ‘you believe not because you are not my sheep, as I said unto you’. The Jews, they are asking Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) that ‘Why don’t you speak plainly?’. So he tells them that…‘Yes I am the Messiah - I have told you clearly, but because you are not my sheep, you don’t believe in me. Verse No.27 continues…Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) continues saying that… ‘My sheep - they hear my voice, and I know them - and they follow me. Verse No.28, that… ‘I give them eternal life - no man can pluck them out of my hand, and they shall not perish’. Verse No.29 says ‘My father who giveth to me, He is greater than all - No man can pluck them out of my father’s hand. Then Verse No. 30 says, ‘I and my father are one’ – ‘Any person who has little bit sense can make out, ‘I and my father are one’ doesn’t mean one - as one person. It means one is purpose. Verse No.28 says, ‘No man can pluck them out of my hand – Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) says- ‘No man can pluck them out of my hand’. Verse No.29 is saying. ‘No man can pluck them out of my father’s hand’. Verse No.30 says ‘I and my father are one’ –suppose I and my father are doctor,now if I say I and my father are one, it is In purpose we both are one.
Mohammed not said so,but Jesus (pbuh) said, "not my will but thy will be done (John 5:30)as muslim say, then he was a muslim. Same as Mohammed.
I am the truth, the way and the life no one can come to my father except trough me ? wht the hell is that mean to you ha? (If my Jesus was muslim he would have said "My Father is the truth the way and the life no one can come to my father unless you submit to him ")
Have any of those phopets said like that ? ha
If we were to back up a little and read from the beginning of this chapter, we would find that just before Jesus spoke these words, he said;
"In my Father's house are many mansions (dwelling places); if it were not so, I would have told you; for I go to prepare a mansion (a dwelling place) for you."
John 14:2
The above statement is quite clear. It is in exact conformance to the teachings of the Qur'an. In the Qur'an we are told how God sent messengers to all tribes and nations. We are told that the basic message which was given to each of these tribes was the same: "Worship God alone and worship none else." Some of the secondary details of this worship might differ from one tribe or nation to the next according to God's infinite wisdom and his knowledge of those people. It was made very clear to each prophet that he was not to preach to anyone but his own people. It was further made clear to this messenger's people that if they were to obey him that they would receive the reward of God. God would not hold them accountable for what any other tribe or nation did or did not do. This would continue until God's last messenger, Muhammad (pbuh) would be sent to all mankind as the seal of the prophets.
This is exactly what Jesus is saying here. He said that in God's mansion there are "many" rooms. Jesus was sent to guide to only one of them. The countless other rooms were reserved for other tribes and nations if they would obey their messengers. However, Jesus was telling his followers that they need not worry themselves about the other rooms. Anyone from among his people who wished to enter into the room which was reserved for them could only do so if they followed Jesus and obeyed his command. So Jesus confirmed that he was going to prepare "a" mansion and not "all" the mansions in "my Father's house".
Further, the verse clearly states that Jesus was the "WAY" to a mansion. He did not say that he is the "DESTINATION" which would be the case if he were God. What else would we expect a prophet of God to say except "I am the 'way' to God's mercy"? That is his job. That is what a prophet does. It is why God chose him in the first place; in order to guide to the mercy of God. This is indeed confirmed in John 10:9 where Jesus tells us that he is "the door" to "the pasture." In other words, he is the "prophet" who guides his people to "heaven" (see also Jn. 12:44). Once again, this is the message of Islam.
Finally, remember
"Not every one that says to me(Jesus); 'Lord, Lord,' will enter the kingdom of heaven; but he who does the will of my Father, who is in heaven."
Matthew.7:21
The Bible's "original manuscripts had been lost" according to the Christian scholars and theologians, Then how can you keep on defending the bible with your illogical answers. here is the link for your information. just for your thought.
http://www.timesonline.co.uk/tol/new...icle574768.ece
What did God say abt his words? , here are a few statements found in the Bible: "Until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen will by any means disappear, from the Law until everything has been accomplished."
Your interpretation is wrong here,but Jesus orders Christians to follow the Law of Moses in the Old Testament: "Do not think that I [Jesus] have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke or a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished. (Matthew 5:17-18)" It is quite clear from these verses from the New Testament that Jesus peace be upon him did honor the Old Testament and did say that every single "letter" of it has to be honored, followed and fulfilled.
The Word of God will not disappear. Everything in it will be accomplished in its entirety till the very end. Again it states, "Heaven and earth will pass away but my words will never pass away."
Again u are using some of the verses to prove your point, Jesus did not speak of his own authority. He came and spoke the words of God, even if I agree for sake of argument that Jesus says his words will not pass away, then why immediately after that verse he say Matthew 24:36 But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only…..if he can predict that his word will never pass away then why he couldn’t know the that day and hour.
Also, "All scripture is God-breathed and useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness."All scripture is inspired by God.
And, "the grass withers and the flowers fall, but the Word of our God stands forever."
We need to ask ourselves, "Is God able to protect his word? Is God able to fulfill these statements, that his word will never disappear, never go unfulfilled?"
Is God capable? Yes, of course. This is God's word to all people. Are we accusing God himself by saying that He was not able to protect it from being changed?
Nothing has been changed. That is only a rumor.
The Quran does not say the Bible has been changed. Just the opposite. It honors the Torah and the Bible. It mentions the Torah, and the "Zabur" (the Old Testament and Psalms) and the "Injil" (the New Testament) many times.
When Islam began in the 6th century, 600 years after Jesus Christ, the Bible was accepted as true.
So, you might ask, has the Bible changed since the 6th century? No. All you have to do is compare today's Bible with a Bible written long ago.
We can find complete Bibles, all the way back to 300 A.D., hundreds of years before the Quran. You can find one in the London Museum, in the Vatican, and many other places. If you compare today's Bible with the Bibles of 300 A.D., the Bible we have today is the same as then.
Did you know that there exists today nearly 25,000 hand-written copies of portions of the New Testament? As historians have compared these manuscripts, they have concluded that the New Testament we have today is at least 99.5% accurate to the original. No change.
(The .5% differences refer to spelling, but no change in meaning.)
Also, you might be familiar with the more recent archeological findings of the Dead Sea Scrolls. These were found in caves of Qumran, just off the northwest corner of the Dead Sea.
Researchers have compared the Bible we have today with what they found, and they remained highly similar, nearly 100% identical.
You didn't provide the proof here, is it some group like you..
Don't let anyone tell you that the New Testament or the Bible has been changed from its original writing. That simply is not historically accurate.
The Bible has not been changed.
Last Word would be : If he (the All mighty God) can not protect his Holy book then someone can say hey wait a mininute your god can not even protect his word / holy book that means either there is no GOD or Your God is not all powerfull
For this question such as why God has not protected earlier revelation and has bible is corrupted?, let me deal with new thread and deal with this soon as it requires clear explanation.
DID JESUS (PBUH) HAVE TWO FATHERS?
What do you call a person who has two fathers? No he has only one father The explanation of the phrase that Jesus (pbuh) was the son of David (pbuh), is that Jesus (pbuh) was a descendant of David (pbuh). ‘Son’, here means a descendant.
yeah there it means the real world descendant
I am also saying samething, son of god doesn’t actually refer to actual biological "Son" at all.it refers to many in Bible, even it may refer to servant of God. In the KJV, we find that Jesus is God's Son. In the NKJV, we find that He is God's servant. These are clearly not the same! The Greek word found in the text here is "pais". It can be used in Greek for either "son" or "servant." So which one is correct here? See the link
http://www.chick.com/information/bibleversions/articles/saviororservant.asp
bt Remember Jesus said : I and the father are one, can you say like that? CAn David or Mohumed say like that?
Why u r talking out of context?? So for the context, ‘I and my father are one’ - you have to go to the Gospel of John, Ch. No.10, Verse No. 23, and I am quoting from my memory, that ‘Jesus walked into the temple, in Solomon’s porch’. Verse No. 24 says, and the Jews came around him and asked him. ‘How long does thou make us doubt? - If thou art the Christ, tell us plainly’. Verse No.25 says, ‘I told you, but you believe me not - the works that I do in my father’s name, - they bear witness of me. Verse No.26 says that, ‘you believe not because you are not my sheep, as I said unto you’. The Jews, they are asking Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) that ‘Why don’t you speak plainly?’. So he tells them that…‘Yes I am the Messiah - I have told you clearly, but because you are not my sheep, you don’t believe in me. Verse No.27 continues…Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) continues saying that… ‘My sheep - they hear my voice, and I know them - and they follow me. Verse No.28, that… ‘I give them eternal life - no man can pluck them out of my hand, and they shall not perish’. Verse No.29 says ‘My father who giveth to me, He is greater than all - No man can pluck them out of my father’s hand. Then Verse No. 30 says, ‘I and my father are one’ – ‘Any person who has little bit sense can make out, ‘I and my father are one’ doesn’t mean one - as one person. It means one is purpose. Verse No.28 says, ‘No man can pluck them out of my hand – Jesus Christ (peace be upon him) says- ‘No man can pluck them out of my hand’. Verse No.29 is saying. ‘No man can pluck them out of my father’s hand’. Verse No.30 says ‘I and my father are one’ –suppose I and my father are doctor,now if I say I and my father are one, it is In purpose we both are one.
Mohammed not said so,but Jesus (pbuh) said, "not my will but thy will be done (John 5:30)as muslim say, then he was a muslim. Same as Mohammed.
I am the truth, the way and the life no one can come to my father except trough me ? wht the hell is that mean to you ha? (If my Jesus was muslim he would have said "My Father is the truth the way and the life no one can come to my father unless you submit to him ")
Have any of those phopets said like that ? ha
If we were to back up a little and read from the beginning of this chapter, we would find that just before Jesus spoke these words, he said;
"In my Father's house are many mansions (dwelling places); if it were not so, I would have told you; for I go to prepare a mansion (a dwelling place) for you."
John 14:2
The above statement is quite clear. It is in exact conformance to the teachings of the Qur'an. In the Qur'an we are told how God sent messengers to all tribes and nations. We are told that the basic message which was given to each of these tribes was the same: "Worship God alone and worship none else." Some of the secondary details of this worship might differ from one tribe or nation to the next according to God's infinite wisdom and his knowledge of those people. It was made very clear to each prophet that he was not to preach to anyone but his own people. It was further made clear to this messenger's people that if they were to obey him that they would receive the reward of God. God would not hold them accountable for what any other tribe or nation did or did not do. This would continue until God's last messenger, Muhammad (pbuh) would be sent to all mankind as the seal of the prophets.
This is exactly what Jesus is saying here. He said that in God's mansion there are "many" rooms. Jesus was sent to guide to only one of them. The countless other rooms were reserved for other tribes and nations if they would obey their messengers. However, Jesus was telling his followers that they need not worry themselves about the other rooms. Anyone from among his people who wished to enter into the room which was reserved for them could only do so if they followed Jesus and obeyed his command. So Jesus confirmed that he was going to prepare "a" mansion and not "all" the mansions in "my Father's house".
Further, the verse clearly states that Jesus was the "WAY" to a mansion. He did not say that he is the "DESTINATION" which would be the case if he were God. What else would we expect a prophet of God to say except "I am the 'way' to God's mercy"? That is his job. That is what a prophet does. It is why God chose him in the first place; in order to guide to the mercy of God. This is indeed confirmed in John 10:9 where Jesus tells us that he is "the door" to "the pasture." In other words, he is the "prophet" who guides his people to "heaven" (see also Jn. 12:44). Once again, this is the message of Islam.
Finally, remember
"Not every one that says to me(Jesus); 'Lord, Lord,' will enter the kingdom of heaven; but he who does the will of my Father, who is in heaven."
Matthew.7:21
The Bible's "original manuscripts had been lost" according to the Christian scholars and theologians, Then how can you keep on defending the bible with your illogical answers. here is the link for your information. just for your thought.
http://www.timesonline.co.uk/tol/new...icle574768.ece
What did God say abt his words? , here are a few statements found in the Bible: "Until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen will by any means disappear, from the Law until everything has been accomplished."
Your interpretation is wrong here,but Jesus orders Christians to follow the Law of Moses in the Old Testament: "Do not think that I [Jesus] have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke or a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished. (Matthew 5:17-18)" It is quite clear from these verses from the New Testament that Jesus peace be upon him did honor the Old Testament and did say that every single "letter" of it has to be honored, followed and fulfilled.
The Word of God will not disappear. Everything in it will be accomplished in its entirety till the very end. Again it states, "Heaven and earth will pass away but my words will never pass away."
Again u are using some of the verses to prove your point, Jesus did not speak of his own authority. He came and spoke the words of God, even if I agree for sake of argument that Jesus says his words will not pass away, then why immediately after that verse he say Matthew 24:36 But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only…..if he can predict that his word will never pass away then why he couldn’t know the that day and hour.
Also, "All scripture is God-breathed and useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness."All scripture is inspired by God.
And, "the grass withers and the flowers fall, but the Word of our God stands forever."
We need to ask ourselves, "Is God able to protect his word? Is God able to fulfill these statements, that his word will never disappear, never go unfulfilled?"
Is God capable? Yes, of course. This is God's word to all people. Are we accusing God himself by saying that He was not able to protect it from being changed?
Nothing has been changed. That is only a rumor.
The Quran does not say the Bible has been changed. Just the opposite. It honors the Torah and the Bible. It mentions the Torah, and the "Zabur" (the Old Testament and Psalms) and the "Injil" (the New Testament) many times.
When Islam began in the 6th century, 600 years after Jesus Christ, the Bible was accepted as true.
So, you might ask, has the Bible changed since the 6th century? No. All you have to do is compare today's Bible with a Bible written long ago.
We can find complete Bibles, all the way back to 300 A.D., hundreds of years before the Quran. You can find one in the London Museum, in the Vatican, and many other places. If you compare today's Bible with the Bibles of 300 A.D., the Bible we have today is the same as then.
Did you know that there exists today nearly 25,000 hand-written copies of portions of the New Testament? As historians have compared these manuscripts, they have concluded that the New Testament we have today is at least 99.5% accurate to the original. No change.
(The .5% differences refer to spelling, but no change in meaning.)
Also, you might be familiar with the more recent archeological findings of the Dead Sea Scrolls. These were found in caves of Qumran, just off the northwest corner of the Dead Sea.
Researchers have compared the Bible we have today with what they found, and they remained highly similar, nearly 100% identical.
You didn't provide the proof here, is it some group like you..
Don't let anyone tell you that the New Testament or the Bible has been changed from its original writing. That simply is not historically accurate.
The Bible has not been changed.
Last Word would be : If he (the All mighty God) can not protect his Holy book then someone can say hey wait a mininute your god can not even protect his word / holy book that means either there is no GOD or Your God is not all powerfull
For this question such as why God has not protected earlier revelation and has bible is corrupted?, let me deal with new thread and deal with this soon as it requires clear explanation.
